I have two business contract classes:
public BusinessContract
public Person : BusinessContract
In another class I have the following code:
private Action<BusinessContract> _foo;
public void Foo<T>( Action<T> bar ) where T : BusinessContract
{
_foo = bar;
}
The above won't even compile, which baffles me a bit. I'm constraining T to be BusinessContract, so why doesn't the compiler know that bar can be assigned to _foo?
In trying to get around this, we tried changing it to the following:
public void Foo<T>( Action<T> bar ) where T : BusinessContract
{
_foo = (Action<BusinessContract>)bar;
}
Now the compiler is happy, so I write the following code elsewhere in my application:
Foo<Person>( p => p.Name = "Joe" );
And the app blows up with an InvalidCastException at run-time.
I don't get it. Shouldn't I be able to cast my more specific type to a less specific type and assign it?
UPDATE
Jon answered the question so got the nod for that, but just to close the loop on this, here's how we ended up solving the problem.
private Action<BusinessContract> _foo;
public void Foo<T>( Action<T> bar ) where T : BusinessContract
{
_foo = contract => bar( (T)contract );
}
Why are we doing this? We have a Fake DAL we use for unit testing. With one of the methods we need to give the test developer the ability to specify what the method should do when it's called during the test (it's a refresh method that updates a cached object from the database). The purpose of Foo is to set what should happen when refresh is called. IOW, elsewhere in this class we have the following.
public void Refresh( BusinessContract contract )
{
if( _foo != null )
{
_foo( contract );
}
}
The test developer could then, for example, decide they wanted to set the name to a different value when Refresh was called.
Foo<Person>( p => p.Name = "New Name" );
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